Lab Assistant (Water Authority) 84/2024 Special Topic Questions with Answers | Kerala PSC

 1. The optical path within cuvette is always:

(A) 10 mm

(C) 1 em

(B) 1 mm

(D) Both (A) and (C)

Answer

D

2. Insoluble solid can be removed from a liquid by:

(A) Analysia

(B) Filtration

(C) Distillation

(D) Titration

Answer

B

3. Find the correct pair regarding Colour code for Biomedical waste collection bag:

(1) Black: Body parte

(ii) Red: Contaminated Plastic

(iii) White: Sharps

(iv) Yellow: Placenta

(A) (i) and (iii)

(C) (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii) and (iv)

(D) Both (B) and (C)

Answer

D

4. Find the Carcinogenic chemical:

(A) Selenite

(C) Benzidine

(B) Nitrosamine

(D) All of the above

Answer

D

5. Most common causes of electrical hazard, the laboratory staff should be aware of is:

(A) Long flexible electrical connecting cables

(B) Electrical equipment left switched off

(C) Cables are insulated

(D) Electrical cords are as short as possible

Answer

A

6. Reagents with accurate concentrations can be made using:

(A) Erlenmeyer Flask

(B) Conical Flask

(C) Volumetric Flask

(D) Round bottomed Flask

Answer

C

7. The following is not true about deionised water:

(A) High purity than Distilled water

(B) Neutral pH

(C) High Electrical Conductivity

(D) Need not be sterile

Answer

C

8. The cleaning of Culture plates after use include the following steps in order:

1. Rinse thoroughly with tap water

2. Autoclaving 30 minutes at 121 °C

3. Brush with detergent and water

4. Dry

5. Pour out the contents of media

6. Rinse with distilled water

(A) 2, 5, 1, 3, 4, 6

(B) 2, 5, 3, 1, 6, 4

(C) 1, 2, 5, 3, 6, 4

(D) 1,2, 3, 4, 5, 6

Answer

B

9. The main responsibilities of Laboratory professional, include all except:

(A) Give Medical Advice and necessary medical treatment to patients

(B) Participate in Quality Assurance and Improvement of Laboratory Service

(C) Confidentiality of Patient Medical Information

(D) Presont Laboratory results to Clinicians

Answer

A

10. First aid for minor burns don't include:

(A) Protect area with sterile non adhesive bandage

(B) Apply ice or butter

(C) Don't break blisters

(D) Take a counter pain reliever

Answer

B

11. The 'blue top' vacutainer tube contains which anticoagulant?

(A) Sodium fluoride

(B) Sodium citrate.

(D) EDTA

(C) Heparin

Answer

B

12. Drabkin's reagent is used for haemoglobin estimation. It contains:

(A) Sodium ferricyanide, Sodium dihydrogen phosphate, Potassium cyanide

(B) Potassium ferrocyanide, Potassium hydrogen phosphate, Sodium cyanic

(C) Potassium ferricyanide, Potassium dihydrogen phosphate, Potassium cy

(D) None of these

Answer

C

13. Internal diameter of a capillary haematocrit tube is:

(A) 1 cm

(C) 0.2 mm

(B) 0.1 mm

(D) 1 mm

Answer

D

14. In automated blood cell counters, which method uses light scattering and fluores analyse the blood cells?

(A) Flow cytometry

(C) Radio frequency analysis

(B) Electrical impedance

(D) Hydrodynamic-focusing

Answer

A

15. Leishman's stain is used to stain blood cells routinely. The primary mechanism of Leishman's stain on blood cells is:

(A) It disrupts cell membrane

(B) It modifies cell surface receptors

(C) It interacts with proteins in the cytoplasm

(D) It interacts with nucleic acids in the cell

Answer

D

16. Macrophages play a crucial role in phagocytosis, tissue repair etc. The blood cell ophages modified into macrophages in tissue is:

(A) Neutrophil

(B) Basophil

(C) Monocyte

(D) Lymphocyte

Answer

C

17. Which condition may be indicated by an increased reticulocyte count?

(A) Haemolytic anaemia.

(B) Aplastic anaemia

(C) Pernicious anaemia

(D) Iron deficiency anaemia

Answer

A

18. In which all hypersensitivity reactions do eosinophilia is seen:

(A) Type I and Type II hypersensitivity reactions

(B) Type II and Type III hypersensitivity reactions

(C) Type II and Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

(D) Type I and Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

Answer

D

19. Which of the following is true with the Bombay blood group?

(A) H gene is present

(B) H gene is absent.

(C) H substance is formed

(D) Seen in subgroups of A blood.

Answer

B

20. A negative result in the indirect Coomb's test suggest:

(A) The presence of antigens on red blood cells.

(B) The presence of antibodies in the recipient's serum

(C) The absence of antibodies in the recipient's serum

(D) The absence of antigens on red blood cells

Answer

C

21. Both naturally occurring and immune antibodies may or may not bind complemen main blood group antibodies bind complement, except:

(A) Rh antibodies.

(C) anti B

(B) anti A

(D) Both anti A and anti B

Answer

A

22. Name the coagulation test which is prolonged in a patient with haemophilia:

(A) D-dimer test

(B) Thrombin time

(C) Prothrombin time

(D) Activated partial-thromboplastin time

Answer

D

23. Westergren's method is used to find Erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The working di the Westergren's tube used in this test is:

(A) 100 mm

(B) 200 mm

(C) 150 mm

(D) 250 mm.

Answer

B

24. The sperm count below 15 million/ml of semen is termed as:

(A) Azoospermia

(B) Polyzoospermia

(C) Oligospermia

(D) Zoospermia

Answer

C

25. Which condition is indicated by the presence of high levels of protein in the urine?

(A) Diabetes Mellitus

(B) Hyper Tension

(C) Glomerulo nephritis

(D) Urinary Tract Infection

(B) Haemophilia

Answer

C

26. Blood in sputum is termed as:

(A) Haemoptysis

(C) Haematuria

(D) Hemostasis

Answer

A

27. The presence of fat globule in the stool is indicative of:

(A) Hepatitis

(C) GERD

(B) Appendicitis

(D) Malabsorption Syndrome

Answer

D

28. Presence of Neutrophils in CSF indicates:

(A) Viral meningitis

(B) Jaundice

(C) Polio

(D) Bacterial meningitis

Answer

D

29. The Anticoagulant of choice for blood sugar estimation is:

(A) Sodium citrate

(B) Sodium fluoride

(C) EDTA

(D) Heparin

Answer

B

30. The commonly used tumor marker for prostate cancer is:

(A) Prostate specific antigen

(B) Alpha-feto protein

(C) CA-125

(D) CEA

Answer

A

31. The marker used to differentiate between cardiac and skeletal muscle damage is:

(A) Troponin I

(C) CK-MB

(B) Myoglobin

(D) LDH

Answer

A

32. The elevated alkaline phosphatase is seen in:

(A) Haemolytic anaemia

(C) Diabetes mellitus.

(B) Hyper thyroidism

(D) Bone disease

Answer

D

33. The type of cholesterol commonly termed as good cholesterol is:

(A) LDL

(B) HDL

(C) THDL

(D) VLDL

Answer

B

34. The normal value of sodium level in serum is:

(A) 80-110 mEq/L

(C) 200-300 mEq/L

(B) 20-40 mEq/L

(D) 135-145 mEq/L

Answer

D

35. The hormone which regulates metabolism, heart rate and body temperature:

(A) Thyroid hormone

(C) Insulin

(B) Cortisol

(D) Glucagon

Answer

A

36. The test provides an average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months is:

(A) HbsAg

(B) HbA1C

(D) GCT

(C) GTT

Answer

B

37. POCT stands for:

(A) Patient Of Care Testing

(B) Point Of Care Testing

(C) Part Of Care Testing

(D) Pulmonology of Care Testing

Answer

B

38. The colorimeter works under the principle of:

(A) Beer's Lambert's Law

(C) Newton's Law

(B) Kirchoff's Law

(D) Charle's Law

Answer

A

39. Which shape describes bacteria with helically twisted cylinders?

(A) Bacillus

(B) Coccus

(C) Spirochaete

(D) Vibrio.

Answer

C

40. Liquid paraffin can be sterilised by:

(A) Hot air oven

(B) Autoclave

(C) Inspissator

(D) Waterbath

Answer

A

41. is a clearing agent used in tissue processing.

(A) Acetone

(B) Alcohol

(C) Paraffin Wax

(D) Water

Answer

A

42. Which is the instrument used to cut frozen sections?

(A) Rocking microtome

(B) Wax bath

(C) Cryostat

(D) Cryofuge

Answer

C

43. The counter stain that can be used in Gram's stain:

(A) Dilute carbol fuschin

(C) Neutral red

(B) Safranine

(D) All of the above

Answer

D

44. Cerebral malaria is caused by:

(A) Plasmodium ovale

(B) Plasmodium vivax

(C) Plasmodium falciparum

(D) Plasmodium malariae

Answer

C

45. A diagnostic technique used for very early detection of cancer:

(A) Biopsy

(B) Radiation

(C) FNAC

(D) Surgeory

Answer

C

46. Which is the nuclear stain used in Papanicolau staining?

(A) Harri's Haematoxylin

(B) Orange G6

(C) EA36

(D) EA65

Answer

A

47. RPR test is used for the serodiagnosis of:

(A) Typhoid

(B) Syphilis

(C) AIDS

(D) IMN

Answer

B

48. Which of the following is not a method for anaerobic culture of bacteria?

(A) McIntosh Fildes jar

(B) Gaspak system

(C) Alkaline pyrogallol method

(D) Clot culture

Answer

D

49. Filarial worms inhabit which part of the human body?

(A) Intestine

(C) Brain

(B) Liver

(D) Lymph nodes

Answer

D

50. The tissue embedding medium used in electron microscopy is:

(A) Paraffin wax

(C) Starch

(B) Bees wax

(D) Epoxy resin

Answer

D

51. Candela' is the SI unit of which fundamental quantity?

(A) Electric Current

(B) Luminous Intensity

(C) Temperature

(D) Amount of Substance

Answer

B

52. A particle of mass 'm' is moving in a Uniform Circular motion with constant speed circle of radius 'r'. The acceleration of the particle is:

(A) Zero

(B) u²/r

(C) u/r²

(D) mu²/r

Answer

B

53. The frictional force required to keep the solid object on its surface at rest is called?

(A) Static friction

(C) Rolling friction

(B) Kinetic friction

(D) Sliding friction

Answer

A

54. The variation of acceleration due to gravity with height from the surface of the earth

(A) Increases with increase in height

(B) Decreases with increase in h

(C) Remains constant

(D) None of the above

Answer

B

55. The statement, "The pressure in a fluid at rest is the same at all points if they same height represents which of the following?

(A) Boyle's Law

(C) Archimedes Principle

(B) Bernoulli's principle

(D) Pascal's law

Answer

D

56. The Celsius scale temperature corresponding to 212 deg * F in the Fahrenheit scale is:

(A) 0 deg * C

(B) 100 deg * C

(C) 212 deg * C

(D) 273 deg * C

Answer

B

57. The period of oscillation of a second's pendulum is:

(A) 1 second

(B) 10 seconds

(C) 2 seconds.

(D) 60 seconds

Answer

B

58. Among the following statements about electric field lines select the correct option:

(1) They start from positive charge and end in negative charge.

(ii) Two electric field lines can never cross each other.

(iii) Electric field lines do not form any closed loops.

(A) (1) and (ii) are correct

(C) (1) and (iii) are correct

(B) (1) and (iii) are correct

(D) All the statements are correct

Answer

D

60. Which electromagnetic radiation plays an important role in maintaining the Earth through the greenhouse effect?

(A) UV rays

(B) Gamma Rays

(C) Infrared Rays

(D) Radio waves

Answer

C

61. Which of the following is the most electrically conductive element?

(A) Silver

(B) Lead

(C) Hydrogen

(D) Aluminium.

Answer

A

62. A ray of light passes from medium 1 to medium 2. If no refraction occurs, then between the incident light and surface of separation should be:

(A) 45

(C) 180 deg

(B) 120 deg

(D) 90 deg

Answer

D

63. Which of the following mirror is used as rear view mirror in vehicles?

(A) Convex mirror

(B) Concave mirror

(C) Plane mirror

(D) Cylindrical mirror

Answer

A

64. The main application of Zener diode is:

(A) Amplification

(B) Multi vibration

(C) Rectification

(D) Voltage regulation

Answer

D

65. Name the series of Hydrogen spectrum corresponds to visible region:

(A) Balmer series

(B) Lyman series

(C) Paschen series

(D) Pfund series

Answer

A

66. A solution contains 0.5 moles of solute in a 2 litres of solution. What is the m the solution?

(A) 0.25 M

(C) 2.5 M

(B) 1M

(D) 0.125 M

Answer

A

67. For an electron in a 48 orbital what are the possible values of the angular m quantum number 1:

(A) 1

(B) 0

(C) 2

(D) 3

Answer

B

68. During charging of a Lend Storage cell which electrode undergoes the Oxidation read

(A) Lead Electrode

(B) Oxygen Gas Electrode

(C) Hydrogen Gas Electrode

(D) Lead Dioxide Electrode

Answer

D

69. Which of the following term is an example of a lyophobic colloid?

(A) Gelatin

(B) Sulphur

(C) Starch

(D) Gum Arabic

Answer

B

70. Which of the following elements has the highest ionization enthalpy in the second. modern periodic table?

(A) La

(C) B

(B) Be

(D) C

Answer

D

71. Which of the following equation depicts the reducing nature of hydrogen peroxide?

(A) 2Fe(CN)+2H+H₂O, 2[Fe(CN)+2H₂O

(B) I+H₂O₃+20H21+2H2O+0

(C) MnH₂O,→ Mn+20H

(D) PbS+4H,O, PbSO, +4H,O

Answer

B

72. Hyponatremia refers to a condition characterized by:

(A) High levels of sodium in the blood

(B) Low levels of calcium in blood

(C) Normal levels of sodium in the blood

(D) Low levels of sodium in the blood

Answer

D

73. The IUPAC name for:

(A) 1-chloro-2-nitro 4-methyl benzene

(B) 1-chloro-4-methyl 2-nitrobenzene

(C) 2-chloro 1-nitro 5-methyl benzene

(D) m-nitro p-chloro toluene

Answer

B

74. Which pair of compounds gives Tollen's test?

(A) Glucose and Fructose

(C) Hexanal and Acetophenone

(B) Sucrose and Glucose

(D) Fructose and Sucrose

Answer

A

75. The commercial name of poly acrylonitrile is:

(A) Orlon

(B) PVC

(C) Bakelite

(D) Dacron

Answer

A

76. Which of the following reagents can be used to oxidise primary alcohols to aldehyde

1. CrOs in anhydrous medium

2 KMnO, in acidic medium.

3. Pyridinium Chlorochromate

4 Heat in the presence of Cu at 573 K

(A) 1

(B) 1.2

(C) 1.2.4

(D) 1,3,4

Answer

D

77. Which of the following is an example for analgesic?

(A) Ranitidine

(B) Penicillin

(C) Aspirine

(D) Bithional

Answer

C

78. The discovery of fullerenes led to the development of which significant area in science:

(A) Superconductors

(B) Nanotechnology

(C) Polymers

(D) Photovoltaic

Answer

B

79. Which of the following is not a transition metal?

(A) Vanadium

(B) Gold

(C) Thallium

(D) Copper

Answer

D

80. Which step is not involved in decomposition?

(A) Leaching

(B) Stratification

(C) Catabolism

(D) Fragmentation

Answer

B

81. Name the enzyme used to break the bacterial cell for DNA isolation:

(A) Pectinase

(B) Chitinase

(C) Cellulase

(D) Lysozyme

Answer

D

82. Name the part that guide the entry of pollen tube into the embryo sac/female gamet

(A) Synergid

(B) Filiform apparatus

(C) Egg

(D) Antipodals

Answer

B

83. Which one of the following pair is correct?

(1) Elaioplast - Store oil/fat

(ii) Amyloplast-Store carotenoid

(iii) Aleuroplast-Store protein

(A) Both (i) and (iii)

(C) Both (1) and (ii)

(B) Both (ii) and (iii)

(D) Only (iii)

Answer

A

84. Single cotyledon present in Maize seed is called:

(A) Epiblast

(B) Scutellum

(C) Hypocotyl

(D) Perisperm

Answer

B

85. Which pest is controlled by cryLAb gene of Bacillus thuringiensis?

(A) Corn borer

(B) Cotton bollworms.

(C) Armyworm

(D) Budworm

Answer

A

86. Name the new breed of sheep produced in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri Marino rams:

(A) Nellore

(B) Marwari

(C) Hisardale

(D) Mecheri

Answer

C

87. Which type of synovial joint allows for the rotational movement between the Atla vertebrae?

(A) Hinge Joint

(B) Pivot Joint

(C) Ball and Socket Joint

(D) Gliding Joint

Answer

B

88. What is the effect of ADH on blood vessels, and how does this influence Kidney fune

(A) Vasodilation; decreases GFR

(B) Vasoconstriction; increases blood pressure and GFR

(C) Vasodilation; increases GFR

(D) Vasoconstriction; decreases blood pressure and GFR

Answer

B

89. In which method is the ovum collected from a donor transferred into the fallopi another female?

(A) Artificial Insemination

(B) In Vitro Fertilisation

(C) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer

(D) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection.

Answer

C

90. Which feature is NOT typically associated with Down's Syndrome?

(A) Broad palm with palm crease

(B) Short stature

(C) Mental retardation

(D) Gynaecomastia.

Answer

D

91. Which class of Satellite DNA is specifically used in DNA finger printing due degree of polymorphism?

(A) Microsatellite

(B) Minisatellite

(C) Alu sequences

(D) Long Interspersed Nuclear Elements

Answer

B

92. Which characteristic is NOT typical of Cancer cells?

(A) Uncontrolled Cell Division

(C) Formation of Benign tumors only

(B) Loss of Contact Inhibition

(D) Ability to invade surrounding tissues

Answer

C

93. Which of the following Phyla show radial symmetry?

(A) Porifera 

(B) Annelida

(C) Coelenterata

(D) Mollusca

Answer

C

94. In a club, 60 men play cricket 30 play tennis and 15 play both cricket and tennis. play at least one of these two games?

(A) 60

(C) 72

(B) 70

(D) 75

Answer

D

95. If A = \{x, y, z\} B = \{1, 2\} then the number of relations from A into B is:

(A) 64

(C) 36

(B) 63

(D) 54

Answer

A

96. Which of the following function describe an 'onto' function?

(A) Let A = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5\} and f / A -> A is defined by (1,3), (2,5), (3.5) (4.2), (5, 3)

(B) Let A = [- 1, 1] and f / A -> A is given by f(x) = x ^ 2

(C) Let A = \{- 1, 1\} and is given by g(x) = x ^ 3 g / A -> A

(D) None of these

Answer

C

97. How many terms of the Arithmetic progression 1, 4, 7,.... are needed to give the sur

(A) 22

(C) 30

(B) 25

(D) 31

Answer

A

98. What is the value of 2sin^2 (30 deg) - 3cos^2 (45 deg) + (cos^2 (60 deg))%

(A 3/4

(B) - 3/4

(C) 1/2

(D) - 5/4

Answer

B

99. What is the equation of the ellipse whose vertices are at (5.0), (-5,0) (4,0), (-4,0)?

(A) 25x ^ 2 + 9y ^ 2 = 225

(B) 5x ^ 2 + 3y ^ 2 = 15

(C) 9x ^ 2 + 25y ^ 2 = 225

(D) 3x ^ 2 + 5y ^ 2 = 15

Answer

C

100. Find the equation of the line that has x-intercept-3 and is perpendicular to 3x + 5y

(A) 3x + 5y + 9 = 0

(B) 3x - 5y - 9 = 0

(C) 5x - 8y - 45 = 0

(D) 5x - 3y + 15 = 0

Answer

D

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